Tracing #27
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A major United Kingdom corporation is conducting a free wellness screening clinic for their employees. The 40-year-old male below relates a history of frequent debilitating "dizzy spells". Your interpretation/advice is: (Choose only one)
A. Early transition. This could represent a posterior infarction, but is most likely secondary to the WPW (pseudoinfarction).
B. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. It meets the triad criteria as follows: 1. QRS duration > 0.10 sec. 2. Short PR < 0.12 sec. 3. Presence of Delta Waves.
C. Significantly wide Q-waves in Leads III, avF consistent with inferior infarction but most likely secondary to the WPW (pseudoinfarction).
D. R > 12 mm Lead avL. Meets the voltage criteria of LVH but most likely is simply secondary to the WPW (pseudo-LVH).
E. Short PR interval, but otherwise does not satisfy the criteria of WPW.
F. Incomplete LBBB.
G. Lown-Ganong-Levine Syndrome.
H. None of the above.
I. A, B, C and D only.
J. F and G only.
Tracing #27 [ Submit answer below illustration ]
